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Question of the Day
Why is it that cops continue to be judged using benefit of the doubt when their victims continue to be judged using reasonable doubt?
Isn't it strange that we never read about a wrongfully convicted police officer being exonerated after serving 20 plus years in prison for a crime he didn't commit?
Maybe, just maybe, we ought to either start to treat civilians accused of committing a crime with the same rights and benefits we offer cops, or, hey here's a thought, start treating cops accused of committing a crime like we do civilians.
Just thoughts and questions