According to Article 2 of the 1948 United Nations Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide defines genocide as
Any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: killing members of the group; causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; [and] forcibly transferring children of the group to another group."
https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/genocide
Genocide is a crime of specific intent.
Genocidal intent requires that acts must be committed against members of a group specifically because they belong to that group
https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/genocide
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Very early on, Hamas had it within its power to release the hostages and surrender or arrange for safe passage to any one of the of the terrorist supporting or terrorist adjacent countries in the region. Had they done that, there would be no war.
And if Israel truly had genocidal intent against the Palestinian people, wouldn't they begin by expelling the 2,100,000 Palestinian/Arab citizens of Israel, including the one who sits on the Supreme Court and those who sit in the Knesset?
The narrative doesn't track.
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NSCs John Kirby: "Israel isnt trying to wipe the Palestinian people off the map. Israel isnt trying to wipe Gaza off the map. Israel is trying to defend itself against a genocidal terrorist threat. So if were going to start using that word, Fine. Lets use it appropriately.
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ICJ didn't decide claim of genocide was plausible nor that there's a plausible case of genocide